Prelims Test Series

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Prelims Tests

Prelims Test Series Sample Questions

Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Multidimensional Poverty Index’:

1. It is measured on an individual basis.
2. The indicators it uses for measurement of poverty are living standards, income and health.
3. It is published by World Economic Forum.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3

SOLUTION:

Only statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because income is not used while for measurement of MPI. This is because data on income in various countries is not readily available properly. As for statement 3, please refer the mind map below. Hence, the answer is (c). The details of MPI which you should be aware about are distilled in the following mind map:

Strategic Analysis

Questions like these keep appearing in UPSC. For example, in 2018, the following question was asked:

“Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?
(a) Amnesty International
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
(d) World Justice Project

Ans: (d)

Similarly, the following question was asked in 2017:

Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) UN Human Rights Council
(c) UN Women
(d) World Health Organization

Ans: (a)

Another question asked in 2016:

Which of the following is/are the indicator/ indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report?
1. Undernourishment
2. Child stunting
3. Child mortality
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans: (c)

Observation: There are many more questions like these asked by UPSC. Strategically, you should remember to cover the following points about such indices/reports/rankings:

• The publishing body/bodies
• Indicators
• Unique points
• India’s position/performance

In the mind map above, we have covered these points for MPI. We will cover more such important ones in news in this test series. But you should also keep it in mind to pay special attention to the details pointed out above about these reports/rankings/etc while covering the news.

Q.2) Consider the following rivers:
1. Ung
2. Subarnrekha
3. Tel
4. Baitarni
Which of the above are tributaries of Mahanadi?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 3 only

SOLUTION:
Almost every year there is a question in PT related to the rivers and their tributaries. In this test series , we will help you memorise all the important rivers and their tributaries using a series of specially designed ‘learning aids’ videos . The following video is a part of this series and covers the Mahanadi basin and surrounding rivers. You will find the answer to the above question in this video :

http://mitrasias.club/mahanadi

Q.3) Match the following vedas with the contribution they have made to Indian classical dances:
Veda Contribution to Indian classical dances
1. Rigveda A. Pathya (words)
2. Yajurveda B. Geet (music)
3. Samaveda C. Rasa (emotions)
4. Atharvaveda D. Abhinaya (gestures)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
a) 1-A , 2-D , 3-B , 4-C
b) 1-A , 2-B , 3-D , 4-C
c) 1-C , 2-B , 3-D , 4-A
d) 1-C , 2-D , 3-B , 4-A

SOLUTION :

(a)

Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding Environmental Pollution Control Authority (EPCA) :
1. It is a supreme court mandated body dealing with issues of environmental pollution throughout the country.
2. It is mandated to enforce Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP)
3. It was established under the Air(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1,2 and 3

SOLUTION:

Let’s first see why EPCA was in news…

The (EPCA), following the recommendations of Central Pollution Control Board-led task force, had extended the ban on construction activities, all industries using coal and biomass and the entry of goods carriers in the NCR till November 12’ 2018 due to the persisting pollution levels in the Capital.

About EPCA
• It a supreme court mandated body dealing with issues of environmental pollution in the
National capital region.
• It was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
• The main function of EPCA is to protect and improve the quality of environment and also
prevent and control environmental pollution in National Capital Region.
• It is also mandated to enforce Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in NCR as per the
pollution levels.
• The tenure of EPCA is extended from time to time by the central government.

So, we can see that Statement 1 is wrong as it deals with pollution only in the NCR region. Statement 3 is wrong as well . So, the right answer is (c).

Strategic Analysis

Consider the following question asked in 2018 :

How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) ?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

Observation: It can be seen that questions are framed on the nature and functions of various bodies. In this respect, it becomes important for you to remember how a body has been established and the important and unique points about its mandate just like what we have covered for the EPCA above.

Additional related notes for revision:

Central Pollution Control Board:
• It is a statutory organisation, constituted in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. It was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
• Its main functions are – (i) to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of
the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and (ii) to improve the
quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.

National Air Monitoring Programme (NAMP):
• Air Quality Monitoring is an important part of the air quality management. The NAMP has been established with objectives to determine the present air quality status and trends and to control and regulate pollution from industries and other source to meet the air quality standards.
An Air Quality Index (AQI) is a number used by the government agencies to communicate to the public how polluted the air currently is or how polluted it is forecasted to become. As the AQI increases, an increasingly large percentage of the population is likely to experience increasingly severe adverse health effects.

Q.5) Consider the following statements related to Government Schemes:
1. The Centrally sponsored schemes are funded both by the centre and states but implemented by the centre.
2. The Central sector schemes are funded and implemented by the centre.
Which of these statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION:

(a)
Please refer to the following mind map to understand the difference between centrally sponsored schemes and central sector schemes:

Related news

The Finance Minister of India has mooted that Healthcare and Agriculture sectors need a federal institution similar to the GST Council to coordinate State and Central policies and schemes. As both health and agriculture are state subjects under the Constitution, centrally sponsored schemes are carried out in both sectors.

Both Central and State government spend resources on running schemes, establishing hospitals and other institutions. This at times leads to unnecessary overlapping of schemes and lack of coordination between the agencies. So, according to the finance minister, there is a scope for the merger of schemes for the common benefit of citizens across the country. But this can be brought about effectively only if federal institutions (like GST council) are established in these sectors to coordinate the efforts of centre and states.

Q.6) Which of the following seas does the Kerch Strait connect?
a) Sea of Azov and Sea of Marmara
b) Sea of Marmara and Black Sea
c) Sea of Azov and Black Sea
d) None of the above

SOLUTION:

Why is Sea of Azov in news?

Tensions between Russia and Ukraine spiked in October 2018 after the former fired on and seized three Ukrainian ships, alleging that they had illegally entered its waters in the Sea of Azov. Ukraine responded by putting its military on high alert. Kiev has accused Moscow of blocking its ships access through the Kerch Strait, the only way in and out of the Sea of Azov to the Black Sea.

What’s the background to this issue?
Bilateral ties between the two countries have remained tense since the Russian annexation of Crimea from Ukraine in 2014. Moscow has also backed anti-regime rebels in eastern Ukraine’s Donbass region, while Kiev moved further away from Russian influence.
According to a 2003 agreement, both Russia and Ukraine have equal access to the Strait as well as the Sea of Azov. But the status quo was changed after the Russian annexation of Crimea, which lies on the Kerch Peninsula. After the annexation, Russia has taken control of both sides of the Strait.
Earlier in 2018, Vladimir Putin opened a bridge across the Strait linking mainland Russia to Crimea and tightening Moscow’s grip on the peninsula. Ukraine has been a helpless spectator when Russia steadily expanded its influence from the Kerch Strait to the Sea of Azov.
Now Putin’s strategy seems to be to cut Ukraine’s influence around the Sea of Azov, which could cause tremendous economic loss to the country, besides weakening its position in the civil war in the east.
The latest flare-up also suggests that the western sanctions did little to change Russia’s aggressive attitude towards its weaker neighbours. The crisis in Ukraine remains a dangerous flashpoint between Russia and the West.

From exam perspective

So, this geographical area becomes important from the prelims point of view as discussed in the strategic analysis below .

We have marked out the seas , Kerch Strait (which connects the Sea of Azoz and the Black Sea) and the surrounding countries in the map below . Make sure that you remember the locations well.

Strategic Analysis

Consider the following question asked in PT’2017 :

Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?
1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans : (c)

In fact, the question above is almost a repeat of another question asked in PT’2015:

Which of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
(a) Syria
(b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon
(d) Israel

Ans : (b)

And let’s see one more from PT’ 2014:

Turkey is located between
(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea

Ans : (b)

There are umpteenth number of such questions if you analyse the past 20 years’ papers of UPSC PT. Generally, the geographical areas in news are often asked. For example, the area around the Mediterranean Sea is often in news and hence the questions above. But often times, even the ones not in news are asked but they are generally very important geographical locations. In 2017 alone, as many as seven questions were map based.

So, how to tackle this important area?

• Try to refer to Atlas whenever you come across a piece of news related to a particular geographical location. Try to see its surrounding countries, gulfs , straits , capital cities , etc as we have done for the case of Sea of Azov above.
• Make it a habit to go through a page of Atlas for at least 5 minutes a day. Seeing it for 2 hours at a stretch on a random day won’t be as effective as seeing a section every day for 5 minutes. Done consistently for a period of time, you will master this part rather easily. Remember, consistency will be the key here.

Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding Monetary Policy Committee :
1. It was formed following the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee.
2. It targets inflation in Wholesale Price Index.
3. In decision making on any issue, in case of a tie between members, the casting vote rests with the RBI governor.
Which of these statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION:

(a)
Please go through the following infographic to review the important information related to MPC that you should know :

There have been similar questions in PT about such important bodies. For example, in PT’ 2017, the following question was asked. Try to figure out the answer from the above infographic :

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Q.8) Consider the following organisations :
1. Food and Agricultural Organisation
2. United Nations Development Program
3. Economist Intelligence Unit
4. Barilla Centre
Which of these jointly develop the ‘Food Sustainability Index’ ?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4

SOLUTION:
(d)
Please have a look at the following infographic to understand broad findings of Food Sustainability Index (especially, focus on boxed items . These will also be important for your mains exam)

What is Food Sustainability Index (FSI)?
• The Food Sustainability Index was developed in collaboration between the Barilla
Centre for Food and Nutrition Foundation (BCFN) and the Economist Intelligence
Unit, with one common objective: to promote knowledge on food sustainability.

• It is a global study on nutrition, sustainable agriculture and food waste which collects data from 67 countries across the world to highlight best practices and key areas for improvement in relation to the food paradoxes and the main Sustainable Development Goals.

• ‘Fixing Food 2018: Best Practices towards the Sustainable Development Goals’ is a study analysing the social, economic and environmental aspects of food sustainability. The links between these features highlight the key challenges that need addressing: access to food, promoting healthy and sustainable diets and an increasingly responsible food production and distribution.

What are the components of FSI?
It uses three pillars :
1. Sustainable agriculture
2. Nutritional challenges
3. Food loss and waste
There are in total 38 indicators and 90 individual metrics. However , from your exam point of view , these indicators need not be memorised but only the three pillars mentioned above.

India’s position
The (FSI) has ranked India at 33rd place despite India’s steady increase in food grain production. France has topped the FSI.

Strategic Analysis

Consider the following questions asked in UPSC PT recently :

“Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following? (2018)
(a) Amnesty International
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
(d) World Justice Project

Ans : (d)

Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world? (2017)
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) UN Human Rights Council
(c) UN Women
(d) World Health Organization

Ans : (a)

Which of the following is/are the indicator/ indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report? (2016)
1. Undernourishment
2. Child stunting
3. Child mortality
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans : (c)

Observation: We can see from the above the importance of various indices and reports. And the important aspects to remember about these reports is the body that publishes the report and the main indicators. Also, India’s position in the report should be remembered.

Q.9) Which of the following animals are endemic to Andaman & Nicobar islands?
1. Dugong
2. Narcondam Hornbill
3. Humpback Dolphin
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

SOLUTION:
(b)
Related news
Zoological Survey of India in a report titled ‘Faunal Diversity of Biogeographic Zones: Islands of India’ has for the first time come up with a database of all faunal species found on the islands.

Key highlights of the report
• The islands comprise only 0.25% of India’s geographical area, and yet are home to more than 10% of the country’s fauna species.
• Some of the species in A&N Islands are restricted to a very small area and thus more vulnerable to any anthropogenic threat. Besides, the Government of India relaxed the Restricted Area Permit (RAP) norms for some foreign nationalities notified under the Foreigners (Restricted Areas) Order, 1963, to visit 29 of its inhabited islands, till December 31, 2022.This has triggered further concerns of increased anthropogenic pressures over the islands’ ecosystem.

Some important species highlighted in the report

Marine Fauna
Of the ten species of marine fauna found on the islands, the dugong/sea cow, and the Indo-Pacific humpback dolphin(however, these are both found elsewhere too), are both classified as Vulnerable under the IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) Red List of Threatened Species.

Terrestrial species
Three species have been categorised as Critically Endangered :
• Andaman shrew
• Jenkin’s shrew
• Nicobar shrew

Some important endemic faunal species of A&N islands

• Narcondam hornbill: Its habitat is restricted to ‘lone island’
• The Nicobar megapode, a bird that builds nests on the ground
• The Nicobar treeshrew, a small mole-like mammal
• The Long-tailed Nicobar macaque
• The Andaman day gecko
These species are among the 1,067 endemic faunal species found only on the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and nowhere else

Strategic Analysis

Please go through the following questions asked in PT :

[2015] With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Ans : (c)

[2015] Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
(a) Saltwater crocodile
(b) Olive ridley turtle
(c) Gangetic dolphin
(d) Gharial

Ans : (c)

[2016] Recently, our scientists have discovered a new and distinct species of banana plant which attains a height of about 11metres and has orange-coloured fruit pulp. In which part of India has it been discovered?
(a) Andaman Islands
(b) Anaimalai Forests
(c) Maikala Hills
(d) Tropical rain forests of northeast

Ans : (a)

[2016] In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?
(a) Sand deserts of northwest India
(b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
(d) Western Ghats

Ans : (d)

Observations: As can be seen in these questions, a number of questions are asked on faunal and floral species of India. However, it’s almost impossible to memorise all such species. A good strategy to cover these is to cover the species given in basic books and to make a note of all the species which have been in news recently.

Q.10) In the following table, match the Acts with their respective features using the codes given below :

The Acts before 1857Features of the Act
1.    Regulating Act of 1773A.   Macaulay Committee was appointed
2.    Pitt’s Act of 1784B.    East India Company’s territories were called British possessions for the first time
3.    Charter Act of 1833C.    Governor General of Bengal was made Governor General of India
4.    Charter Act of 1853D.   Supreme Court was established at Calcutta

a) 1-D , 2-C , 3-B , 4-A
b) 1-D , 2-B , 3-C , 4-A
c) 1-A , 2-B , 3-C , 4-D
d) 1-B , 2-D , 3-A , 4-C

SOLUTION:
(b)
We have summarised the important features of all the Acts before 1857 in the infographic below. Please go through it to figure out the solution for this question:

Q.11) Consider the following statements about the Finance Commission of India:
1. It is a quasi-judicial body.
2. It recommends on the tax distribution between centre and states but not about grants-in-aid from centre to states.
3. Its recommendations are legally binding on the government.
Which of the statement(s) above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

SOLUTION:

(c)
Please refer to the infographic below to figure out the answer to this question and to revise other important aspects about the Finance Commission:

Q.12) Consider the following items:
1. Cereal grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Service Tax)?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

SOLUTION:
(a)
This question was asked in PT’2018. Prime facie, it seems like a data-based question but it can be intelligently guessed. We have explained the strategy in the following video:

http://mitrasias.club/strategy1

Q.13) Which of the following dances is considered as a synthesis of Hindu and Muslim cultures?
a) Mohiniattam
b) Sattriya
c) Kathak
d) Kathakali

SOLUTION:
( c )

Birth anniversary of Kathak dancer Sitara Devi was in news. So, information associated with Kathak becomes important for PT this time. We have covered the most important data related to this topic in the mind map below:

Q.14) With reference to GPON technology being used in Bharat Net project, consider the following statements:
1. It uses point to multipoint architecture by using optical splitters.
2. It helps consume lower power as compared to point to point optical fiber cables.
3. It is jointly funded by the ministry of communications and ministry of rural development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION:
(a)
What is Bharat Net?
The Bharat Net project has the objective of providing high-speed broadband to all the panchayats in the country by March 2019.

How is the project being funded?
The project is being funded by the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF). This fund is raised through the imposition of ‘Universal Access Levy (UAL)’, which is a percentage of the revenue earned by the operators under various licenses.

Who is the implementing body?
Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL) has been entrusted with the responsibility for the establishment, management and operation of the project.

What kind of technology is being used?
Connectivity to Gram Panchayats is envisaged by optimal mix of media including Underground Optical Fibre cables(OFC), Aerial OFC, Radio, Satellite etc.

GPON (Gigabit Passive Optical Network) technology will be used for BharatNet Project. GPON uses a point-to-multipoint scheme that enables a single optical fiber to serve multiple users. This architecture of GPON uses passive (unpowered) optical splitters, reducing the cost of equipment compared to point-to-point architectures. Due to the low power consumption equipment, it is suitable for Rural India.

Implementation in three phases
• The plan for the project is to be implemented in three phases with the first phase providing broadband connectivity through optic fibre cable to one lakh gram panchayats.
• The second phase includes laying of OFC over electric poles. This is a new element of the BharatNet strategy as the mode of connectivity by aerial OFC has several advantages.
• The third phase involves future proofing of the Network to meet the requirements of Internet of Things (IoT) and 5G services, to be completed by 2023.

Strategic Observation

Often times questions on technologies related to important projects are asked and this question was framed keeping that in mind. Another example is the following question asked in PT’ 2018:

• The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?
1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
2. Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : (c)

Q.15) The recent depreciation in the rupee has not resulted in benefits to exporters as would have been expected. Which of the following could be the possible reasons for this?

1. Currencies of West Asia, Africa and some parts of Asia have also undergone depreciation.
2. There is an increase in the cost of imported goods.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION:
( c )
Depreciation of rupee has been constantly in news recently and a question related to static concepts related to depreciation of currency can be expected. As for this question, it has been framed from a news article in Hindu. The right answer is (c). We have summarised the essential points here:

Q.16) Arrange the following biosphere reserves of India from east to west:
1. Manas National Park
2. Dibru Saikhowa National Park
3. Kanchenjunga National Park
4. Similipal Tiger Reserve
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) 2-1-3-4
b) 2-1-4-3
c) 1-2-3-4
d) 1-3-2-4

SOLUTION:
( a )

Q.17) Which of the following statements regarding Kigali Agreement meant to control the ozone layer depletion is/are correct ?
1. The Kigali Agreement is an amendment to Montreal protocol
2. It is aimed at controlling the chloro fluoro carbons and hydro chloro fluoro carbons
3. It is a non-binding agreement till 2025, but will become binding after that.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3

SOLUTION :
(a)
Why was the ozone layer in news?
A UN study titled “Scientific Assessment of Ozone Depletion: 2018” has shown that the ozone layer is recovering and the concentration of ozone-depleting substances has continued to decrease. This assessment of Ozone Depletion is carried out every 4 years.

In this context, it would be a good idea to review the basic process of ozone depletion and the various treaties in force to control ozone depletion. We have covered these in the diagrams below :

Q.18) Consider the following statements related to judicial appointments:
1. Supreme Court judges are appointed by the president
2. High Court judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the President.
3. Law minister advises president with respect to names forwarded by collegium for appointment as judges in higher judiciary.
Which of the statement(s) above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only

SOLUTION:
(c)
Please refer to the following infographic to review this topic and figure out the solution to this question :

Q.19) With respect to GSLV-F11, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
2. It is usually used to launch communication satellites.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION:
(b)
Why was GSLV-F11 in news?
GSLV-F11 was used to successfully launch GSAT-7A, ISRO’s 39th communication satellite in December’ 2018 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR, Sriharikota. It is the 13th flight of India’s Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) and its 7th flight with indigenous Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS).

Some features of GSLV-F11
GSLV – F11 is ISRO’s fourth generation launch vehicle with three stages :
• First stage: The four liquid strap-ons and a solid rocket motor at the core form the first stage.
• Second stage: It is equipped with a high thrust engine using liquid fuel.
• Third stage: The Cryogenic Upper Stage forms the third and final stage of the vehicle.

About GSAT-7A:
• GSAT-7A with a lift-off mass of 2250 kg, is a geostationary satellite carrying communication transponders in Ku-band.
• The Satellite is built to provide communication capability to the users over the Indian region.

Strategic Analysis

Please go through the following questions asked in UPSC PT :

[2016] With reference to ‘Astrosat’, the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Other than USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space.
2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : (d)

[2018] With reference to India’s Satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements :
1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth
3. GSLV Mk III is four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only

Ans : (a)

[2018] With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements.
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq.km. beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None

Ans : (a)

Observation: UPSC papers are replete with questions on space technology and it can easily be termed as the most important area in Science & Tech section of the UPSC papers not just in PT but also in mains. An important point to note in questions above is that very minute details and data about the various space technology features are asked by UPSC. So, while covering the news, make sure to make notes of all the important features of various space technology.

Q.20) Consider the following statements :
1. HIV Sentinel Surveillance Study is conducted by the World Health Organisation.
2. Anti Retroviral Treatment can reduce the transmission of HIV from an infected person.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION:
(b)

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